Answered

Which of the following explains why f(x) = log4^x
does not have a y-intercept? Check all that apply.

There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.
There is no power of 4 that is equal to 1.
Its inverse does not have any x-intercepts.
Its inverse does not have any y-intercepts.

Answer :

Hrishii

Answer:

There is no power of 4 that is equal to 0.

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex]f(x) = log \: {4}^{x} \\ \\ plug \: x = 0 \\ \\ f(0) = log \: {4}^{0} \\ \\ f(0) = log \: 1 \: ( \because \: {n}^{0} = 1) \\ \\ f(0) = 0 \: ( \because \: log \: 1 = 0)[/tex]

Hence, f(x) = log4^x

does not have a y-intercept.

blandonkeyli29
The answer is A and C.

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